本篇文章给同学们谈谈衡水名师卷全国一卷英语，以及衡水名师卷系列丛书20202021英语对应的知识点，希望对各位同学有所帮助，不要忘记分享给你的朋友哦！
本文目录一览：
- 1、2022新高考一卷英语卷试题及答案一览（可打印）
- 2、2018年全国一卷英语高考试卷真题及答案（附Word版下载）
- 3、2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题及答案
- 4、高考全国一卷英语有什么题型?分值是多少?
- 5、求2020衡水名师原创英语专题卷专题二答案？
2022新高考一卷英语卷试题及答案一览（可打印）
2022新高考一卷英语卷试题及答案已经公布，需要的朋友可以下载出来使用。下面是我为大家整理的2022新高考一卷英语卷试题及答案一览(可打印)，仅供参考，喜欢可以 收藏 与分享哟!
2022新高考一卷英语卷试题及答案
高考 复习 方法
高考考的是心理素质
用以往的 经验 来说，身边有很多同学，平时成绩很好的，但是一到大考，却往往不理想，这是为什么呢?大多数落榜的同学往往是因为心理素质的问题，有所欠缺，还没有认识到心理素质在高考之中，也是很重要的。除了平常的知识点复习以外，也要注意自己心理的状况。平时压力大就要学会及时宣泄抒发。平时要加强锻炼自己的抗压能力，抗挫折能力。考差了不要紧，要分析原因，找漏洞和短板，如果考好了，不要骄傲，要谦虚的学习，跟不断地进步。
注重高考的策略和技巧
其实不是每一个人都是可以把所有知识点掌握，然后去考试的。但是为什么有的人平时并不是很厉害，但往往考试会得到比较高的分数呢?那是因为他们有自己的一些，复习备考的技巧，还有应试的一些技巧。他们知道怎样复习可以提高效率。他们知道自己的短板的长处在哪里，根据实际的试卷情况，去制定一些他们应试做题的策略。比如一些综合科目是很难做完的，所以就从易到难，能得分的题目不失分，可以得分题目稳得分，难的题目尽量得分。
高考备考要坚强
要知道你是作为高考的考生，你现在的使命就是要为你的明天，为了你的理想奋斗，积极向上，不断地进步。在高考备考中，需要坚强地拿出你的勇气来克服高考中的，疲惫，无趣，痛苦，要有屡战屡败，屡败屡战的精神，这样才可以见到，新的光明，结出理想之花。不要轻易地放弃，要对自己的理想坚定不移，要把你的执着和顽强，运用到高考备考当中。
高考备考技巧
紧跟老师的节奏。进入高三以后，许多同学都会形成一个误区，总觉得老师讲的知识点太简单了，自己什么都会，所以上课的时候基本上不听讲，只按照自己的复习步骤来。这是一个错误的复习方法，凡是能够带高三的老师，那他们一定是身经百战，阅历丰富的老师，否则的话，他们也不能够带好高三。老师的经验很丰富，他们已经带过很多届 毕业 生，对于高考哪些知识点会考到，哪些地方需要注意都是了如执掌。所以，不管老师讲的怎么样，一定要紧跟老师的脚步。
不可盲目的刷题。在高三，题海战术是行不通的，并不是每一个题我们都要做，我们可以有选择性的做题，同时做题也要讲究方法和技巧。对于自己已经熟透了的题型，知识点就没必要过多地再做题，因为已经对这类题型很熟悉了，看一眼便知道答案。对于很熟练的知识点不管再做多少遍都无法再将自身的能力得到提高，不仅浪费时间而且也毫无意义，要知道高三的时间是很宝贵的。而且长期这样下去只会是会做的题依然会做，不会做的题依然动不了手。所以，应该对于自己不熟悉的知识点或对于自己不会做的题型多训练，多次进行反复摸索、训练之后，不仅能力可以得到提升，而且从前不会做的题如今能够秒杀。同时，高考中的题目大部分都是基础题，所以平时在训练的时候应该以基础题为准，对于偏题怪题应该选择性的做。
2022新高考一卷英语卷试题及答案一览（可打印）相关 文章 ：
★ 2022英语高考试题及答案(新高考1卷)
★ 最新2022全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题及答案解析
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★ 2022全国甲卷高考英语真题及答案
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2018年全国一卷英语高考试卷真题及答案（附Word版下载）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15.
答案是 C。
1.What will James do tomorrow ?
A.Watch a TV program. B.Give a talk. C.Write a report.
2.What can we say about the woman?
A.She's generous. B.She's curious. C.She's helpful.
3.When does the train leave?
A.At 6:30. B.At 8:30. C.At 10:30.
4.How does the woman go to work?
A.By car. B.On foot. C.By bike.
5.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A.Classmates. B.Teacher and student. C.Doctor and patient.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.What does the woman regret?
A.Giving up her research.
B.Dropping out of college.
C.Changing her major.
7.What is the woman interested in studying now?
A.Ecology. B.Education. C.Chemistry.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8.What is the man?
A.A hotel manager. B.A tour guide. C.A taxi driver.
9.What is the man doing for the woman?
A.Looking for some local foods.
B.Showing her around the seaside.
C.Offering information about a hotel.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.Where does the conversation probably take place?
A.In an office. B.At home C.At a restaurant.
11.What will the speakers do tomorrow evening?
A.Go to a concert. B.Visit a friend. C.Work extra hours.
12.Who is Alice going to call?
A.Mike . B.Joan. C.Catherine .
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.Why does the woman meet the man?
A.To look at an apartment.
B.To deliver some furniture.
C.To have a meal together.
14.What does the woman like about the carpet?
A.Its color. B.Its design. C. Its quality .
15.What does the man say about the kitchen?
A.It's a good size. B.It's newly painted. C. It's adequately equipped .
16.What will the woman probably do next?
A.Go downtown. B.Talk with her friend. C.Make payment .
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.Who is the speaker probably talking to?
A.Movie fans. B.News reporters. C.College students .
18.When did the speaker take English classes?
A.Before he left his hometown.
B.After he came to America.
C.When he was 15 years old.
19.How does the speaker feel about his teacher?
A.He's proud. B.He's sympathetic. C.He's grateful .
20.What does the speaker mainly talk about ?
A.How education shaped his life.
B.How his language skills improved.
C.How he managed his business well.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
21.Which tour do you need to book in advance?
A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.
C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.
22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?
A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park.
C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories.
23.Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?
A. City maps. B. Cameras.
C. Meals. D. Safety lights.
24. What do we know about Susanna Reid?
A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. B. She has started a new programme.
C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She has had a tight budget for her family.
25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?
A. He buys cooking materials for her. B. He prepares food for her kids.
C. He assists her in cooking matters. D. He invites guest families for her.
26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4?
A. Summarize the previous paragraphs. B. Provide some advice for the readers.
C. Add some background information. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart B. Balancing Our Daily Diet
C. Making yourself a Perfect Chef D. Cooking Well for Less
28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?
A.They developed very fast. B. They were large in number.
C. They had similar patterns. D. They were closely connected.
29. Which of the following best explains"dominant " underlined in paragraph 2？
A.Complex. B. Advanced.
C.Powerful. D.Modern.
30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6, 000 people at present?
A.About 6,800 B.About 3,400
C.About 2,400 D.About 1,200
31. What is the main idea of the text?
A. New languages will be created.
B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in languages.
C. Human development results in fewer languages.
D. Geography determines language evolution.
32. What does the author think of new devices?
A. They are environment-friendly. B. They are no better than the old.
C. They cost more to use at home. D. They go out of style quickly.
33. Why did Babbitt's team conduct the research?
A. To reduce the cost of minerals.
B. To test the life cycle of a product.
C. To update consumers on new technology.
D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices.
34. Which of the following uses the least energy?
A. The box-set TV. B. The tablet.
C. The LCD TV. D. The desktop computer.
35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?
A. Stop using them. B. Take them apart.
C. Upgrade them. D. Recycle them.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Color is fundamental in home design——something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a long day? 36 , color is the key to making a room feel the way you want it to feel.
Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones.
38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows ,mirrors and baskets that most of us use to add visual interest to our rooms .Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa ,small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable .
Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofas, dinner tables or bookshelves 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.
The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors .Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 .
A. While all of them are useful
B. Whatever you’re looking for
C. If you’re experimenting with a color
D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with
E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces
F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time
G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
During my second year at the city college，I was told that the education department was offering a "free"course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits.I 41 the idea of taking the class because, after all ,who doesn't want to 42 a few dollars? More than that, I'd always wanted to learn chess. And,even if I weren’t 43 enough about free credits,news about our 44 was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which 45 I would be learning from one of the game's 46 .I could hardly wait to 47 him.
Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this 48 was no game for him: he meant business. In his introduction, he made it 49 that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to 50 the class ,among other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to 51 what we would learn in class to our future professions and, 52 ,to our lives. I managed to get an A in that 53 and learned life lessons that have served me well beyond the 54 .
Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I'm still putting to use what he 55 me:“The absolute most important 56 that you learn when you play chess is how to make good 57 .On every single move you have to 58 a situation ,process what your opponent(对手）is doing and 59 the best move from among all your options.”These words still ring true today in my 60 as a journalist.
41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down
42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay
43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired
44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor
45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant
46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest
47.A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat
48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job
49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible
50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe
51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare
52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally
53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment
54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation
55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised
56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill
57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments
58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control
59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate
60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61 (long) than non-runners. You don't have to run fast or for long 62 (see)the benefit. You may drink, smoke,be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running. While running regularly can't make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause).
The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise… it's probably running. To avoid knee pain,you can run on soft surfaces,do exercises to 68 (strength)your leg muscles(肌肉),avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it's always 69 (energy).If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（Λ），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：
1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第l1处起）不计分。
During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客，发邮件向你询问有关习俗。请你回复邮件。内容包括：
1. 到达时间；
2.合适的礼物；
3. 餐桌礼仪。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
绝密★启用前
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试
英 语
1-5 BCCBA 6-10BABCC 11-15ABAAC 16-20BCBCA
21-25ADDBC 26-30CDBCB 31-35CADBA 36-40BADGF
41-45BCADD 46-50CBDCB 51-55CACBA 56-60DBADA
61.longer 62.to see 63.dying 64.is 65.than 66.that \which 67.causes
68.strengthen 69.energetic 70.it \running
During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and animals. Last winter when I went again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of . They also had a small pond they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by the fish. I felt that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return every two years, he agreed.
书面表达（略
[img]2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题及答案
2022年高考英语落实立德树人根本任务，依据高校人才选拔要求和普通高中英语课程标准，坚持“方向是核心，平稳是关键”的原则，下面我给大家带来2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题及答案，希望大家喜欢!
2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题
2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题答案
2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题分析
一、落实立德树人根本任务，发挥学科育人功能
1.1 融入中华优秀 传统 文化 ，增强学生文化自信
英语科试卷所选语篇弘扬爱国主义，通过融入中华优秀传统文化和社会主义先进文化，引导学生坚定理想信念、提升品德修养、培养奋斗精神。
全国甲卷语法填空语篇报道一位盲人徒步穿越古丝绸之路并沿途做环保的经历，展现中华文明的悠久历史;全国乙卷语法填空语篇介绍联合国设立中国茶文化节及开展的一系列活动，宣传中国茶文化;新高考I卷语法填空语篇报道中国设立大熊猫保护国家公园的情况，介绍中国生态文明建设成就。这些语篇和情境通过讲述中国 故事 ，以浸润的方式引导学生加强对中华优秀传统文化和社会主义核心价值观的认同，增强文化自信，厚植爱国主义情怀。
1.2 强化体美劳 教育 引导，夯实全面发展基础
英语科试卷围绕人与自然、人与社会、人与自我三大主题选材，将对体美劳教育的引导与考查内容、考查要求、考查情境有机融合。
在体育融入试题方面：全国甲卷听力题包含对一位 短跑 运动员的采访材料;全国乙卷短文改错题选取自行车运动有利身体健康和环保的内容;新高考I卷听力题选取一段在运动俱乐部讲话的材料，阅读题选取如何找到合适的健身伙伴的语篇;新高考II卷阅读题选取运动促进心脏健康的语篇，写作题选取一名残疾学生积极参加跑步比赛的语篇。这些语篇和材料旨在引导学生提高运动意识，保持身心健康。
在美育融入试题方面：全国甲卷听力题选取一位艺术鉴赏家谈论自己经历的材料，阅读题选取介绍英国卡迪夫市艺术剧院的语篇;全国乙卷阅读题选取介绍苏格兰画家Henry Raeburn画展信息的语篇。这些语篇旨在引导学生加深对艺术的认识，培养健康向上的审美情趣。
在劳动教育融入试题方面：各套试卷的语篇包含了山区支教、烹饪、做家务等信息，涉及多种工作场景，旨在引导学生形成劳动观念，在学习和生活中培养劳动精神。
1.3 关注时代发展，引导培养核心素养
英语科试卷通过选择具有时代特征的语篇，倡导学生养成独立思考的学习习惯，培育乐于探究的科学精神，构建友好互助的人际关系。
英语科试卷通过选取禁止开车使用手机、悉尼新旧文化冲突、新媒体对 家庭教育 和生活的影响、英国征收糖税的起因及效果等具有探讨性和思辨性的材料，引导学生形成独立思考的习惯，培养主动发现问题和解决问题的能力;通过选取高科技无人机在铁路交通中的应用、鹦鹉识别物体形状的实验、人类语言发展的研究及与捉迷藏相关的 儿童 心理发展实验等语篇，激发学生对科学实验与研究的兴趣;通过选取关爱养老院老人的研究项目、勇救坠楼儿童、修复父子亲情关系等语篇，倡导友好互助、彼此关爱的和谐人际关系。
二、考查学科关键能力，服务落实“双减”政策
2.1 深化基础，注重能力，引导教学减量提质
英语试卷对接高中英语课程标准要求，强化对基础语言知识和文化知识的理解和掌握，注重考查考生在牢固掌握语言知识基础上的综合语言运用能力，引导中学英语教学重视学生语言能力的提高。
英语科试卷在真实、地道的英语语境中考查基础语言知识和文化知识，使用的题型有完形填空、语法填空和短文改错等。这些题型要求考生在正确理解语篇主旨大意的基础上，关注具体语境中不同词语、 句子 与整个篇章结构之间的联系，考查考生对英语词法、句法以及语篇知识的掌握运用情况。阅读题重视对文本精细阅读的考查，尤其强调对语篇关键信息的理解和推断能力。深化基础性考查旨在引导中学教学依据课程标准，帮助学生掌握语音、词汇、语法、语篇和语用等基础语言知识，同时引导学生学会在不同的语境中理解语篇所表达的主题意义，建构结构化知识，内化所学语言知识和文化知识，具备一定的语言意识和英语语感。
英语科试卷注重关键能力考查，尤其强化对阅读理解和书面表达等关键能力的考查。阅读题设置考查作者观点或态度、语篇主旨要义等高阶思维能力的试题，要求考生运用批判性思维和辩证思维深入思考 文章 主题和思想内涵，根据语篇内容进行逻辑推理并通过归纳和概括作答，对考生的语言运用能力提出很高要求。注重关键能力考查旨在引导学生通过听、说、读、看、写等 英语学习 方式和实践活动，灵活运用所学语言知识，提高英语语言综合运用能力。
2.2 创新情境，增强开放，引导减少“死记硬背”
英语科试卷在听力、阅读、语言运用和写作等各部分根据所选素材创设不同的生活实践情境和学习探索情境;通过增强试题开放性和灵活性考查考生运用语言的能力，引导减少“死记硬背”。
2022年高考英语试卷进一步优化写作等试题的考查形式。除考查写邮件等常见形式外，写作部分还设置了读图表写短文和根据提纲要点写短文等形式。全国甲卷要求考生以6月8日世界海洋日为主题，写一篇短文向学校征文比赛投稿;全国乙卷设置的写作情境是校英文报正在开展以Learning English beyond the Classroom为题的讨论，要求考生阅读有关学生英语学习活动情况的图表，使用图表中的调查结果写一篇短文;新高考卷应用文设置的情境是以校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”负责人的身份给外教写一封邮件，邀请她做一次访谈;新高考卷短文续写试题设置的情境是阅读一名残疾学生坚持参加跑步比赛的短文后续写两段文字。这些精心设计的试题情境使写作形式更加灵活，内容更加开放，在加强语言表达能力考查的同时，强调对应用性和创造性能力的考查，引导学生在语言学习过程中注重辨析语言和文化中的具体现象，梳理和概括信息，从自己的视角正确评判周围事物和不同观念，创造性地表达自己的观点和想法。
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高考全国一卷英语有什么题型?分值是多少?
高考全国一卷英语试卷结构由四部分组成，试卷总分150分
第一部分听力(30分，共两节，计入总分)；
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
第二部分阅读理解(包含阅读和七选五，共两节，40分)；
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
第三部分语言知识运用(包含完形填空和语法填空，共两节，45分)；
第一节 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
第四部分写作(包含短文改错和书面表达，35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题；每小题l分，满分10分)
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
拓展
第一部分听力试题【命题意图】听力选材多是学生熟悉的日常交际场景，基本没有生僻词语，语速适中，侧重考查考生在规定时间内对听到的语料的反应能力和理解能力。听力的干扰因素主要在于部分题目备选项在听力原文材料中可听到，迷惑性强，混淆较大，难以判断。对于平时听力训练不够的学生是个较大的挑战。从长远来看，学生要加强对听的重视程度，毕竟听是听、说、读、写中首要的语言能力。
第二部分阅读理解
第三部分语言知识运用
第四部分写作
高考的书面表达重在设计，如何设计出让阅卷老师看了眼前一亮的句子，写出有分词，倒装，强调，修辞的句子，使整篇文章句型丰富，不单一，有效的使用连接成分使文章连贯，方能在高考中拿到高分
求2020衡水名师原创英语专题卷专题二答案？
衡水名师原创试题要找到二的答案估计得自己的老师或同学，有人敢在这里发答案 嗯
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