今天给各位同学分享2018高三英语调研卷4的知识，其中也会对2018年高考英语全国卷三答案进行解释，如果能碰巧解决你现在面临的问题，别忘了分享本站，现在开始吧！
本文目录一览：
- 1、2018年黑龙江高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
- 2、2018年上海高考英语试卷真题答案解析及点评（WORD文字版）
- 3、2018年河南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
- 4、2018年云南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
- 5、2018年江西高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
- 6、2018年全国一卷英语高考试卷真题及答案（附Word版下载）
2018年黑龙江高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2018年黑龙江高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2013年我省高考英语试题整体难度适中，秉承了“稳中求变”的命题原则。试题突出了对语言交际和应用能力的考查，注重考查考生的语言综合运用能力。
听力部分：难度适中话题贴近生活
听力试题语速适中，篇幅遵循由短到长逐步过渡，试题话题选材贴近生活，整体难度适中。短对话部分的五道试题对what、where、when考点进行了考查。此部分要求学生迅速适应朗读者的语音语调，并快速地投入到听力测试状态中。
长对话部分由五篇材料组成。与以往几年考试相同，长对话部分第6段至第10段材料的问题设置依然按2,2,3,4,4的数量分布。考查重点依然放在与实际生活密切相关的场景中。对话内容涉及筹划生日安排、致歉和请求帮助、电话告知友人新工作信息和对Jan的一段采访四个不同的情景。第10段听力材料与2012年采访的形式相比有所变化，又回归了往年独白的考查形式。试题内容涉及旅行日程及景点特点介绍。考生应把握好细节和地名街名的关键词。
从考生的答题感受来看，考生感觉朗读人在语调上与平时模拟训练略有不同，但通过认真审题和进一步加工听到的内容，对理解影响不大。总的来看，听力部分障碍不大。
英语知识运用部分：难度下降无偏题怪题
单项填空对语言交际和应用能力的考查逐年明显，试题中没有偏题怪题出现。今年考题中对动词考察的比重有所下降，共计5道试题。相比2010年至2012年三年的试题中均考查了7个有关动词的试题来说有所减少。涉及到非谓语动词的试题与去年的固定搭配考点相比更突出了在语境中考查的特点。其余考题考查了情景交际2题、形容词、冠词、代词、介词、复合句、连词、特殊句式和倒装各一题。考点覆盖比较全面。
今年的完形填空与2012年的说明文体裁不同，回归了往年高考完形填空夹叙夹议，小故事，大道理型的文章。文章描述了纽约人MichaelGreenberg二十一年坚持在严寒的冬日里赠与过往没有手套的贫苦路人进而给予他们温暖和快乐，并获得了“手套Greenberg”的称号的故事。虽然他的善举不被所有人理解，但他的爱心传承和身体力行的举动却是值得人们效仿的。每个人贡献自己的一份力量帮助有需要的人，会让他人更加幸福快乐，社会将会变得更加美好和谐。试题以实词的考查为主，其中动词十道题，名词五道题，形容词五道题。动词的考察比例占了今年完形填空的半壁江山，与往年比较，介词短语、连词与副词没有考查。总体来看，试题难度比去年有所下降。
阅读理解部分：命理坚持“能力立意”设计灵活
阅读理解试题坚持能力立意的`命题理念，选材语言地道，文体特征鲜明。文章中词汇量不大，考题类型全面，设计灵活，对于细节题考生容易选出答案，但对于难度相对大的文章主旨概括题、推断题、猜测词义等题，就需要考生在阅读文章过程中，从结构上把握全篇，并对获得的信息进行加工处理从而加深理解深度，只有这样，才能在阅读中得到高分。七选五难度适中，考生认为障碍不大。
写作部分
短文改错要求修改一篇你同桌写的习作。难度比去年有所下降。但从近年的考题来看，短文改错一直是一项比较容易得分但又不易得满分的题型，与往年相比短文改错部分考查的知识点上基本上没有什么大的变化，比较稳定。
英语作文：试题内容新颖符合考生的认知水平
2013年高考书面表达延续了往年应用文的考查形式，是提纲类作文，但开放性很大。考题要求学生给美国开网店的朋友Tom写一封信，请他代卖自制的一些中国结，内容要点包括外观(尺寸、大小颜色、材料)、象征意义和价格。书面表达中所设计的情景真实性程度较高，且符合考生的认知水平，考生普遍感觉试题内容比较新颖，与学生的生活息息相关。学生有话可说，容易下笔。但是，要想把文章写得精彩，拿到比较高的分数却不容易。考生体会在描写中国结的时候需要一些地道的表达法，在比较开放的自由发挥空间里，则真正考查了考生的语言底蕴和写作功底。
[img]2018年上海高考英语试卷真题答案解析及点评（WORD文字版）
2018年上海高考英语试卷真题答案解析及点评（WORD文字版）
2015年高考上海英语真题及答案和解析（word版）
考生注意：
1.考试时间120分钟，试卷满分150分。
2.本考试设试卷和答题纸两部分。试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（第1-12页）和第Ⅱ卷（第13页），全卷共13页。所有答题必须涂（选择题）或写（填空题）在答题纸上，做在试卷上一律不得分。
答题前，务必在答题纸上填写准考证号和姓名，并将核对后的条形码贴在指定位置上，在答题纸反面清楚地填写姓名。
第Ⅰ卷（共103分）
I.ListeningComPhension
SectionA
Directions:InsectionA,youwillheartenshortconversationsbetweentwospeakers.Attheendofeachconversation,aquestionwillbeaskedaboutwhatwassaid.Theconversationandthequestionwillbespokenonlyonce.Afteryouhearaconversationandthequestionaboutit,readthefourpossibleanswersonyourpaper,anddecidewhichoneisthebestanswertothequestionyouhaveheard.
1.A.impatientB.confusedC.pleasedD.regretful
【答案】A
【解析】原文：
2018年河南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2018年河南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2015年河南高考英语试卷：试题总体难度降低
“试卷立足基础，突出语境，与考纲要求一致。试题总体难度降低。”6月8日，2015年河南高考结束。大河网第一时间邀请河南河南省实验中学高级教师、高三英语备课组长、刘素芳点评英语试卷。
阅读理解
第一节仍为四篇短文，题材广泛，选文多样，有应用文，说明文，记叙文。试题的设计与往年比较为容易。事实细节题居多，考察比例大于往年，但有的细节题需要学生对具体信息进行一定的`判断和推理。有一个猜词题，但根据上下文很容易能找到答案。其中七选五通过联系上下文能够找到答案。
完形填空
依然是先叙事后议论，最后揭示主题，最能考察学生的语言运用能力，上下文逻辑更为严密，脉络清晰，有利于学生解题，整体难度偏低。
语法填空
由于是高考英语题型改革的第二年，依然较为简单。改错与平时的练习相符合，大部分同学能拿高分。
书面表达
沿用了多年的书信应用文，要求学生写一封书信，具备较强的实用性，中学阶段的英语教学中有类似的写作练习，所以具有考查的效度，体现了教与测之间的关系。提示较多，学生有话可说。
2018年云南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2018年云南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2013年高考英语课标卷总体难度适中，梯度把握良好，第一时间解读如下：
一．总体难度和容量保持稳定
今年的高考维持了自2009年以来新课标卷的构成，保持为：单项填空15题，每题1分，总分15分；完形填空20题，每题1.5分，总分30分；阅读理解20题（其中，任务型阅读5题），每题2分，总分40分；短文改错共10个错，每个错1分，总分10分；书面表达25分。听力20题，每题1.5分，总分30，但题型不在6月8日考试当天出现，云南考生沿承9月和次年3月参加听力考试，择其较优成绩计入总分的方式进行。每个题型的正确选项分布规律和往年一样，依然是平均分布。整个考试较好地体现了难度控制、能力强调、公平性和区分度的原则。
二．单个题型难度调整变化较大
撇开整体试卷难度不计，逐个就题型来看，听力、单项填空、短文改错较往年难度持平，但完形填空、阅读理解和书面表达三个题型变化较大。首先，完形填空难度有所下降，在经历了2011年情节曲折不易解的记叙文题材、2012年社科说明文题材后，今年再次回归情节通俗易懂、上下关联强烈、易解的记叙文题材。其次，分值最高的阅读理解充分体现了“立足语篇、强调应用”的命题原则，总体来说难度略有上升，其中A篇和C篇，沿承2011年和2012年部分篇幅的特点，设题巧妙，更加强调在理解文章主旨、解析句段含义的基础上得出正确答案；任务型阅读和前两年相比也有难度上的提升，答案规律性减弱，同样需要在理解、读懂的基础上进行解题。最后，书面表达具有很强的时代感，和网购及传播中国文化有衔接，同时，对于模板的依赖性减弱而灵活发挥的要求增强——从这个层面讲，书面表达难度也略有上升。
三．2014高考预测和建议
从2013年高考预测高考，可得以下结论：
1.单项填空、短文改错、完形填空三个题型，解题技巧和答案规律明显（题型正确选项同往年一样平均分布），故而，掌握题型解题规律，明悉答案分布规律，无论在今后哪一年的考试中都仍将继续是提分、保持高分的.基础利器，考生很有必要尽早掌握。
2.2012年高考突显了对动词的考查，几乎占到单项填空半数题量，2013年的高考沿承此趋势，继续加大对动词，尤其是动词短语的考查，单项填空有2题考点为动词短语，完形填空填空更是破天荒出现了3题动词短语考查，因此，备考中，动词及动词短语的复习必须放到一个新的高度来重视；
3.“得阅读者得天下”一向是高三考生的至理名言，但是，从今年的试题来看，单纯依靠解题技巧、坑蒙拐骗规律来猜答案的做法必将遭遇阅读题得分的“寒冬”，深度解读文段在2011年和2012年个别篇章中已然成为正确解题的前提条件，在2013年高考中趋势更加明显。与此同时，单纯依靠模板来构建作文，或是死抱陈旧古板素材开展练习的方法，都已无法适应2013年的书面表达要求，关注时代变化和中国元素会是未来书面表达的新趋势。所以，重视基础，扩展词汇量，培养语感，强化理解，与时俱进，深化能力，变“被动知识”为“主动知识”将是2014乃至未来提高阅读理解和书面表达得分的最有效方法。
总结：世上无难事，只怕有心人。高考英语卷课标卷年年有变化，但变化尽在掌握之中，皆有规律可循。对像云南考生一样有2次听力考试机会的学生来说，暑假是开始准备9月第一次听力考试的最好时机，也是提前科学备考，深度剖析考试规律技巧的最佳阶段，及时当勉励，岁月不待人，的考生们要迅速行动起来啊！
2018年江西高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2018年江西高考英语试卷试题及答案解析（WORD文字版）
2012年江西省高考英语试卷与2011年试卷的整体结构相比，四部分整体分值的分布与题型不变，阅读表达题难度有所提高。今年主要考察考生的综合语言运用能力，除了对词汇增加、篇幅加长等语言本身的考查外，对情感态度、学习策略和文化意识的考查也渗透在对语言知识与语言技能的考查中。
今年的单项选择题像往年一样注重基础，不难。没有偏题、怪题，没有刻意追求语言结构的繁杂，而是强调考查考生在语法、词汇、习惯用语等各方面的综合运用能力，突出语言的交际功能，强调对语言内容的`理解。语法则侧重于应用性与实用性，且越来越倾向于考生对语法难点用法的考查，或者是语境下的语法考点考查。
今年整个完形填空大题，设空科学合理，考生不难从中领会大意，从而下手会比较顺利，整篇难度与去年几乎持平，比较适中。从选项中可以看出，本大题主要还是考查了词汇的辨析与运用，但更加注重综合语言能力的运用，需要根据故事情节，了解词汇用法的同时，结合语境，做出准确的判断。所以做完形填空，考生要着重从上下文及词汇意义上做出选择，而不是从语法的角度进行选择。
今年江西高考英语阅读理解题总词汇量比往年略有增加，难度与去年持平，说明阅读理解文章长度和对阅读速度的要求有所增加。题型体现主要在于：（1）主旨和要义。（2）文中的具体信息。（3）根据上下文推断生词的词义。（4）对阅读内容做出推断。（5）文章的基本结构。（6）作者的意图、观点和态度。今年的阅读理解所选用的材料中体裁和题材都很丰富，例如科幻、书评、旅游及组织介绍等。
阅读表达难度和题型与去年相差不大，主要是关于集邮方面的主题。值得一提的是主观表达理解的答题增加了考生对文章深层次的理解，是较去年的一个好的突破.
书面表达一改前几年的形式，写作要求简洁，以写一篇“Ilikereading”稿件为载体，属提纲性材料作文。从作文的话题角度来看，2012年江西英语书面表达内容延续了前几年的一贯风格与思路：与语言学习相关的内容，也最大程度地与现实生活相结合，使学生有话可说。
2018年全国一卷英语高考试卷真题及答案（附Word版下载）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15.
答案是 C。
1.What will James do tomorrow ?
A.Watch a TV program. B.Give a talk. C.Write a report.
2.What can we say about the woman?
A.She's generous. B.She's curious. C.She's helpful.
3.When does the train leave?
A.At 6:30. B.At 8:30. C.At 10:30.
4.How does the woman go to work?
A.By car. B.On foot. C.By bike.
5.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A.Classmates. B.Teacher and student. C.Doctor and patient.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.What does the woman regret?
A.Giving up her research.
B.Dropping out of college.
C.Changing her major.
7.What is the woman interested in studying now?
A.Ecology. B.Education. C.Chemistry.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8.What is the man?
A.A hotel manager. B.A tour guide. C.A taxi driver.
9.What is the man doing for the woman?
A.Looking for some local foods.
B.Showing her around the seaside.
C.Offering information about a hotel.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.Where does the conversation probably take place?
A.In an office. B.At home C.At a restaurant.
11.What will the speakers do tomorrow evening?
A.Go to a concert. B.Visit a friend. C.Work extra hours.
12.Who is Alice going to call?
A.Mike . B.Joan. C.Catherine .
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.Why does the woman meet the man?
A.To look at an apartment.
B.To deliver some furniture.
C.To have a meal together.
14.What does the woman like about the carpet?
A.Its color. B.Its design. C. Its quality .
15.What does the man say about the kitchen?
A.It's a good size. B.It's newly painted. C. It's adequately equipped .
16.What will the woman probably do next?
A.Go downtown. B.Talk with her friend. C.Make payment .
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.Who is the speaker probably talking to?
A.Movie fans. B.News reporters. C.College students .
18.When did the speaker take English classes?
A.Before he left his hometown.
B.After he came to America.
C.When he was 15 years old.
19.How does the speaker feel about his teacher?
A.He's proud. B.He's sympathetic. C.He's grateful .
20.What does the speaker mainly talk about ?
A.How education shaped his life.
B.How his language skills improved.
C.How he managed his business well.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
21.Which tour do you need to book in advance?
A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.
C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.
22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?
A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park.
C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories.
23.Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?
A. City maps. B. Cameras.
C. Meals. D. Safety lights.
24. What do we know about Susanna Reid?
A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. B. She has started a new programme.
C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She has had a tight budget for her family.
25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?
A. He buys cooking materials for her. B. He prepares food for her kids.
C. He assists her in cooking matters. D. He invites guest families for her.
26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4?
A. Summarize the previous paragraphs. B. Provide some advice for the readers.
C. Add some background information. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart B. Balancing Our Daily Diet
C. Making yourself a Perfect Chef D. Cooking Well for Less
28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?
A.They developed very fast. B. They were large in number.
C. They had similar patterns. D. They were closely connected.
29. Which of the following best explains"dominant " underlined in paragraph 2？
A.Complex. B. Advanced.
C.Powerful. D.Modern.
30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6, 000 people at present?
A.About 6,800 B.About 3,400
C.About 2,400 D.About 1,200
31. What is the main idea of the text?
A. New languages will be created.
B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in languages.
C. Human development results in fewer languages.
D. Geography determines language evolution.
32. What does the author think of new devices?
A. They are environment-friendly. B. They are no better than the old.
C. They cost more to use at home. D. They go out of style quickly.
33. Why did Babbitt's team conduct the research?
A. To reduce the cost of minerals.
B. To test the life cycle of a product.
C. To update consumers on new technology.
D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices.
34. Which of the following uses the least energy?
A. The box-set TV. B. The tablet.
C. The LCD TV. D. The desktop computer.
35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?
A. Stop using them. B. Take them apart.
C. Upgrade them. D. Recycle them.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Color is fundamental in home design——something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a long day? 36 , color is the key to making a room feel the way you want it to feel.
Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones.
38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows ,mirrors and baskets that most of us use to add visual interest to our rooms .Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa ,small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable .
Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofas, dinner tables or bookshelves 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.
The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors .Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 .
A. While all of them are useful
B. Whatever you’re looking for
C. If you’re experimenting with a color
D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with
E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces
F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time
G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
During my second year at the city college，I was told that the education department was offering a "free"course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits.I 41 the idea of taking the class because, after all ,who doesn't want to 42 a few dollars? More than that, I'd always wanted to learn chess. And,even if I weren’t 43 enough about free credits,news about our 44 was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which 45 I would be learning from one of the game's 46 .I could hardly wait to 47 him.
Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this 48 was no game for him: he meant business. In his introduction, he made it 49 that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to 50 the class ,among other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to 51 what we would learn in class to our future professions and, 52 ,to our lives. I managed to get an A in that 53 and learned life lessons that have served me well beyond the 54 .
Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I'm still putting to use what he 55 me:“The absolute most important 56 that you learn when you play chess is how to make good 57 .On every single move you have to 58 a situation ,process what your opponent(对手）is doing and 59 the best move from among all your options.”These words still ring true today in my 60 as a journalist.
41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down
42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay
43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired
44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor
45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant
46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest
47.A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat
48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job
49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible
50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe
51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare
52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally
53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment
54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation
55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised
56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill
57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments
58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control
59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate
60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61 (long) than non-runners. You don't have to run fast or for long 62 (see)the benefit. You may drink, smoke,be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running. While running regularly can't make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause).
The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise… it's probably running. To avoid knee pain,you can run on soft surfaces,do exercises to 68 (strength)your leg muscles(肌肉),avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it's always 69 (energy).If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（Λ），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：
1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第l1处起）不计分。
During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客，发邮件向你询问有关习俗。请你回复邮件。内容包括：
1. 到达时间；
2.合适的礼物；
3. 餐桌礼仪。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
绝密★启用前
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试
英 语
1-5 BCCBA 6-10BABCC 11-15ABAAC 16-20BCBCA
21-25ADDBC 26-30CDBCB 31-35CADBA 36-40BADGF
41-45BCADD 46-50CBDCB 51-55CACBA 56-60DBADA
61.longer 62.to see 63.dying 64.is 65.than 66.that \which 67.causes
68.strengthen 69.energetic 70.it \running
During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and animals. Last winter when I went again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of . They also had a small pond they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by the fish. I felt that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return every two years, he agreed.
书面表达（略
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